When playing in the bass strum style do you strum the whole chord after the bass strum or just the strings below the bass note?
Eg: after hitting the 5th string as the bass note on a Gmaj do you strum all six strings or just those below the 5th string.
Thanks.
Dave
I've wondered the same thing myself, and since I have a fifty fifty chnace of being right I would say you just hit the bass note and then the strings below.
My reasoning would be since you just hit that bass note it's still ringing out and there shouldn't be a need to have to hit it again.
Now with that said I know I do both, sometimes I hit just the other strings sometimes the whole chord and with my playing it doesn't make much of a difference.
Chris
"It's all about stickin it to the man!"
It's a long way to the top if you want to rock n roll!
Correct 100%. You must leave the bass not ringing, so just strum the strings below it. And it needn't be all of them either.
For instance Em 022000
Hit the low E for your bass. But you can get away with strumming the E B G strings.
Remember some songs are alternating bass strum, so you need room to have a second bass note to hit.
Matt
It depends on the sound you want to make. I do it both ways depending on what mood/sound I want.
Bass, then the lower strings = Deep then High pitch sounds. Sad then happy, if you will.........depending on chord.
Bass, then full chord = Deep followed with much emotion.......
It's all in the owner's interpretation of the end resulting sound that you the owner, want to achieve.
You can find this aptly in 'Time of your life' by Green Day.(when strumming starts 8) )
