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28/02/2006 12:13 am
Why is it that you can solo over dominant 7th chords with the blues scale when dominant 7ths dont have the flat 3rd note? Am I to assume that you simply dont use the flat 3rd when soloing over the chord? Or is it ok to use it in this instance?
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28/02/2006 2:56 am
It's ok to use it.
A characteristic of the blues is the conflict between a b3 in the melody and a natural 3 in the chords.
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